Тест: ПМ 5


Список вопросов


1. 1. What is the purpose of night inspections for overhead power transmission lines?

1) D. To perform emergency measures after accidents
2) C. To measure the insulation resistance of insulators
3) B. To assess the quality of work of electricians
4) A. To visually check the condition of overhead line elements

2. 2. How often are day inspections, the main type of inspections, carried out for overhead power transmission lines?

1) D. Annually
2) B. Monthly
3) C. Biannually
4) A. Weekly

3. 3. What is the minimum horizontal distance required for the security zone of overhead lines up to 20 kV?

1) D. 10 meters
2) C. 5 meters
3) B. 2 meters
4) A. 1 meter

4. 4. During maintenance, what is the main means of combating wood damage for wooden supports?

1) D. Measuring rotting depth with a megohmmeter
2) C. Installing repair couplings
3) B. Applying antiseptics to the support material
4) A. Tapping the support in dry weather

5. 5. What is the primary disadvantage of wooden supports for overhead power transmission lines?

1) D. Cracking
2) B. Melting
3) C. Rotting
4) A. Corrosion

6. 6. How is the condition of wooden supports assessed during dry and frost-free weather?

1) D. Checking with binoculars
2) C. Performing night inspections
3) A. By measuring insulation resistance
4) B. Tapping to establish rotting of the core

7. 7. What is the minimum distance required from overhead lines to the ground according to the Rules of electrical installations?

1) D. 7 meters
2) B. 5 meters
3) C. 6 meters
4) A. 2 meters

8. 8. What percentage of overhead line damage is attributed to insulator failures according to the text?

1) D. 40%
2) B. 20%
3) C. 30%
4) A. 10%

9. 9. How is the rotting depth of wooden supports determined?

1) D. By night inspections
2) C. By piercing the support with fixation of force
3) B. By measuring with a megohmmeter
4) A. By visual inspection

10. 10. What is the primary purpose of repair couplings in the context of overhead power transmission lines?

1) D. To prevent short circuits to the ground
2) C. To check the condition of insulators
3) A. To restore mechanical strength of wires
4) B. To measure insulation resistance

11. 11. When is an extraordinary inspection of overhead power transmission lines typically carried out?

1) D. During day inspections
2) C. Annually
3) A. Monthly
4) B. After accidents and natural disasters

12. 12. What is the main focus when inspecting reinforced concrete supports for overhead lines?

1) D. Checking the tension of braces
2) B. Identifying visible defects
3) C. Measuring insulation resistance
4) A. Monitoring insulator condition

13. 13. What should be the minimum thickness of the protective wall of concrete for overhead line supports?

1) D. 15 mm
2) B. 8 mm
3) C. 10 mm
4) A. 5 mm

14. 14. How is a broken insulator detected using the simplest method mentioned in the text?

1) D. By performing control inspections
2) C. By checking the presence of voltage on each element of the garland
3) B. By tapping the insulator with a metal rod
4) A. By measuring insulation resistance

15. 15. What is the resistance threshold that each insulator should not fall below during insulation resistance measurements?

1) C. 300 MOhm
2) D. 400 MOhm
3) B. 200 MOhm
4) A. 100 MOhm

16. 16. Which of the following parameters is used to measure the minimum leakage current that will cause the GFCI to trip?

1) C. Operating Voltage (Volts)
2) D. Conditional Short-Circuit Current Rating (Amps)
3) A. Rated Current (Amps)
4) B. Differential Current (mA)

17. 17. When inspecting reinforced concrete supports, the main attention should be paid to:

1) D. Detecting the slope of the support
2) C. Checking the thickness of the protective wall of concrete
3) B. Identifying visible defects
4) A. Inspection of condition of supports

18. 18. Which of these inspections is performed 1 time a year?

1) C. Control
2) D. Riding
3) A. Day
4) B. Night

19. 19. Overhead line inspections are divided into ____and extraordinary.

1) D. Malfunction
2) B. Riding
3) C. Controlling
4) A. Periodic

20. 20. What is the advantage of RCD?

1) D. None of them
2) C. Neutral wire dependency.
3) B. Multifunctionality.
4) A. Complex troubleshooting.

21. 21. What is the rated current of GFCI?

1) C. None of the above
2) D. The medium current
3) B. The smallest current that GFCI will trip
4) A. The maximum current that GFCI can handle without tripping

22. 22. The resistance of each insulator should not be less than ___MOhm.

1) C. 300 MOhm
2) D. 400 MOhm
3) B. 200 MOhm
4) A. 100 MOhm

23. 23. An analysis of the operation of overhead power lines shows that about ___of overhead line damage is due to insulator failures.

1) D. 20%
2) B. 60%
3) C. 30%
4) A. 35%

24. 24. Magnetizing current of __ power transformer

1) D. 5-600 kV
2) C. 4-500 kV
3) B. 6-500 kV
4) A. 7-700 kV

25. 25. Neutral power transformers____kV

1) D. 80-160 kV
2) C. 220-380 kV
3) B. 60-110 kV
4) A. 110-220 kV

26. 26. What is the purpose of a short circuit device in an electrical circuit?

1) D. To amplify electrical signals
2) C. To prevent excess current flow during a short circuit
3) B. To regulate voltage
4) A. To increase electrical resistance

27. 27. How is a separator controlled?

1) D. By manual rotation
2) C. Through voice commands
3) B. By a SHPO drive
4) A. By a cooking timer

28. 28. What is the function of disconnect switches in electric power systems?

1) C. Generation of electric power.
2) D. Distribution of heat.
3) B. Isolation and disconnection of equipment.
4) A. Transmission of electric power.

29. 29. The duration of a time delay of AR depends on:

1) C. air gap
2) D. all of the above
3) B. nominal current of the device
4) A. voltage, cross-section and material of the wires

30. 30. What is the AR time delay?

1) A. 0.2-0.5s
2) B. 0.2-0.4s
3) C. 0.2-0.3s
4) D. 0.1-0.3s

31. 31. What is the primary function of an Automatic Transfer Switch (ATR) device?

1) D. Renewable energy generation
2) B. Automatic reserve input
3) C. Voltage regulation
4) A. Energy conservation

32. 32. Which of the following can serve as a backup power source in an ATR system?

1) D. Diesel generator (DGU)
2) C. Geothermal energy
3) B. Natural gas supply
4) A. Solar panels

33. 33. How many independent power sources do first-category power consumers typically have?

1) D. Four
2) C. Three
3) B. Two
4) A. One

34. 34. In the special first category, how many mutually redundant power sources are required for consumers?

1) D. Four
2) C. Three
3) A. One
4) B. Two

35. 35. What is the primary purpose of an Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS) device?

1) D. Renewable energy generation
2) C. Voltage regulation
3) B. Uninterrupted power supply
4) A. Energy conservation

36. 36. How does an ATS system respond to disruptions in the main power line?

1) D. Initiates a shutdown
2) C. Quickly switches to the backup source
3) B. Monitors without taking action
4) A. Activates repeated switching

37. 37. When should the disconnection of the main grid occur in relation to connecting the backup line in an ATS system?

1) D. It doesn't matter
2) C. Before connecting the backup line
3) B. Simultaneously
4) A. After connecting the backup line

38. 38. What is a crucial feature regarding the action of an ATS device in the case of the same fault?

1) D. Ignoring faults for uninterrupted supply
2) C. One-time event for the same fault
3) A. Repeated activations for the same fault
4) B. Slow response for fault conditions

39. 39. What conditions can trigger the automation system to command a change in the power source for an ATS device?

1) D. Noise levels exceeding a threshold
2) C. Wind speed variations
3) B. Deviations in working voltage parameters
4) A. Changes in temperature

40. 40. Why is it essential for the ATS device to check for unresolved faults on the protected section before switching to a backup source?

1) D. To speed up the switching process
2) C. To increase backup source usage
3) A. To save energy
4) B. To prevent dangerous situations

41. 41. Under what conditions will the ATS device return to the primary input when using two equivalent inputs?

1) D. When unresolved faults are present on the backup line.
2) C. When electrical current parameters on the primary input are restored
3) B. Only during financial losses
4) A. Whenever there is a deviation from specified parameters

42. 42. What are the two main components of an ATS device from a technical perspective?

1) D. Mechanical and Protective
2) B. Decision-Making and Signaling
3) C. Logical and Switching
4) A. Logical and Operational

43. 43. What is the task of the measuring section in the ATS device?

1) D. Ensuring redundancy in power supply
2) C. Constantly monitoring input parameters
3) B. Performing mechanical functions
4) A. Making necessary connections

44. 44. What does the logical controller in the ATS device include for decision-making?

1) D. Sectional switch
2) C. Adjustable time delay setting
3) B. Measuring devices
4) A. Two-position relay

45. 45. What is the purpose of the indicator (signaling) part in the ATS device?

1) D. Setting upper and lower limits for working voltage
2) C. Informing about changes and faults in operation
3) A. Performing mechanical functions
4) B. Making necessary connections

46. 46. How is the power section in the ATS device assembled?

1) D. Using logical controllers
2) C. Using contactors or automatic circuit breakers
3) A. Using measuring devices
4) B. Using adjustable time delay settings

47. 47. What is the key feature of a two-input ATS scheme?

1) D. Activation through sectional switches
2) C. Priority given to the second input
3) B. Equivalence between inputs
4) A. Both inputs being activated simultaneously

48. 48. How does a two-input ATS scheme operate in normal conditions?

1) B. The second input always has priority
2) C. Both inputs are activated simultaneously
3) D. Activation is controlled by measuring devices
4) A. The first input always has priority

49. 49. When is a two-input ATS scheme with sectioning used?

1) D. In the absence of measuring devices
2) C. During faults in the main power grid
3) B. When power distribution is divided between two different inputs
4) A. In normal operating conditions

50. 50. What ensures that both inputs are equivalent in a two-input ATS scheme with sectioning?

1) D. Measuring devices
2) B. Sectional switch
3) C. Priority settings in the logical controller
4) A. Adjustable time delay setting

51. 51. What does the sectional switch provide in a two-input ATS scheme with sectioning?

1) C. Power to the de-energized section from the other input
2) D. Activation of measuring devices in case of faults
3) B. Redundancy in the logical controller
4) A. Continuous power supply to both sections

52. 52. Why is cooling essential for transformers?

1) C. To dissipate excess heat generated
2) D. To improve insulation quality
3) B. To prevent dust accumulation
4) A. To reduce noise levels

53. 53. Which type of transformers are suitable for the Air Natural (AN) cooling method?

1) D. Transformers up to 3 MVA
2) C. Transformers rated above 15 MVA
3) B. Dry type transformers
4) A. Oil-immersed transformers

54. 54. What is the purpose of the Air Blast cooling method for transformers?

1) D. To cool transformers rated up to 15 MVA
2) C. To prevent oil contamination
3) B. To dissipate heat using forced air
4) A. To cool by natural air flow

55. 55. Which cooling method is used for oil-immersed transformers up to about 30 MVA, relying on natural convection and conduction?

1) D. Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN)
2) A. Oil Forced Water Forced (OFWF)
3) B. Oil Natural Air Forced (ONAF)
4) C. Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF)

56. 56. How is the heat dissipation improved in the Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF) cooling method?

1) D. By applying forced oil flow
2) B. By using forced air on the dissipating surface
3) C. By natural convection
4) A. By applying forced water flow

57. 57. Which cooling method is generally used for large transformers up to about 60 MVA and employs forced air with automatic starting arrangements?

1) D. Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF)
2) B. Air Blast
3) C. Oil Natural Air Forced (ONAF)
4) A. Air Natural (AN)

58. 58. What is the distinguishing feature of the Oil Forced Water Forced (OFWF) cooling method?

1) D. Employment of automatic starting arrangements
2) B. Circulation of oil through heat exchangers
3) C. Dissipation of heat through natural convection
4) A. Use of forced water flow for heat dissipation

59. 59. Which cooling method is applied in very large transformers with ratings of several hundreds MVA?

1) D. Oil Natural Air Forced (ONAF)
2) C. Oil Forced Water Forced (OFWF)
3) A. Air Natural Or Self Air Cooled
4) B. Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF)

60. 60. What is the principle behind the Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN) cooling method for oil-immersed transformers?

1) D. Natural convection of heated oil
2) C. Forced oil flow through heat exchangers
3) A. Forced air flow through the radiator
4) B. Conduction of heat through oil

61. 61. When is the Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF) cooling method typically provided for transformers?

1) D. For transformers up to about 30 MVA
2) C. For transformers rated more than 3 MVA
3) B. For higher rating transformers at substations or power stations
4) A. For transformers up to 3 MVA

62. 62. What crucial roles do electrical substations play in the power grid?

1) D. Dangerous mess of wires
2) C. Essential functions in electrical distribution
3) A. Decoration
4) B. Chaotic arrangement

63. 63. What is the primary function of a substation in terms of voltage levels?

1) C. Improving grid stability
2) D. Avoiding shutdowns in the entire substation
3) A. Power factor correction
4) B. Changing nature of supply voltage

64. 64. How are substations classified based on voltage levels?

1) A. By geographical location
2) B. By construction features
3) C. By operational challenges
4) D. By voltage ranges

65. 65. What voltage range is typically associated with Low Voltage (LV) Substations?

1) D. 2.4KV - 69KV
2) C. 0.24KV - 0.6 KV
3) B. 800KV - 1,100KV
4) A. 115KV - 765 kV

66. 66. What type of substations allow switching between power lines without altering transmitted voltages?

1) D. Converting Substations
2) B. Collecting Substations
3) C. Switching Substations
4) A. Transformer Substations

67. 67. Where are Power Factor Substations usually located to compensate for power losses during transmission?

1) D. At the secondary side of transmission lines
2) C. In residential areas
3) B. Near load centers
4) A. Near generating stations

68. 68. What is the purpose of Mobile substations?

1) D. Industrial power supply
2) C. Power factor correction
3) B. Easy maintenance and protection from blackouts
4) A. Permanent electrical supply

69. 69. Where are Industrial Substations commonly used?

1) D. Underground mines
2) C. Dedicated consumers like industries
3) A. Residential areas
4) B. Large-scale constructions

70. 70. What characterizes Indoor Substations?

1) D. Surface-mounted transformers
2) B. Large area clearance between live conductors
3) C. Equipment installed within a building
4) A. Equipment exposed to hazardous chemicals

71. 71. What is a characteristic of Outdoor Substations?

1) D. Equipment located outdoors with large area clearance
2) B. Equipment exposed to hazardous chemicals
3) C. Small area clearance between live conductors
4) A. Equipment located indoors

72. 72. What factors determine the selection of the type of transformer?

1) A. Transformer color
2) B. Transformer weight
3) C. Location of the substation
4) D. Transformer brand

73. 73. In terms of kVA, what size range is preferred for liquid-filled transformers for a 12.47kV/480V system?

1) D. 1000-5000 kVA
2) C. 750-3750 kVA
3) B. 500-1000 kVA
4) A. 0-500 kVA

74. 74. What is the purpose of an Instrument Transformer?

1) C. To transform current from a higher value to a lower value
2) A. To transform voltage from a higher value to a lower value
3) D. To transform voltage from a lower value to a higher value
4) B. To transform current from a lower value to a higher value

75. 75. What are the two types of Instrument Transformers mentioned in the text?

1) D. Power Transformer and Distribution Transformer
2) A. Voltage Transformer and Power Transformer
3) B. Current Transformer and Power Transformer
4) C. Voltage Transformer and Current Transformer

76. 76. What does Switchgear refer to in the context of electrical substations?

1) D. A type of transformer
2) C. A gear system for manual power transmission
3) B. Collection of devices for controlling and isolating electrical equipment
4) A. Collection of snacks for substation workers

77. 77. What is the role of Monitoring Equipment in a substation?

1) D. Monitoring and selecting protective devices
2) C. Controlling the flow of electricity
3) A. Providing emergency lighting
4) B. Designing protective relays

78. 78. What is the primary function of a Bus-Bar in an electrical power substation?

1) C. Acting as a protective relay
2) D. Transforming voltage levels
3) B. Carrying electrical current with many connections
4) A. Providing emergency power

79. 79. What is the purpose of Batteries in electric power stations and substations?

1) C. Powering industrial substations
2) D. Operating and controlling protective relay systems
3) B. Supplying power to residential consumers
4) A. Providing emergency power during blackouts

80. 80. What types of batteries are commonly used in power stations and substations?

1) D. Lithium and Nickel-metal hydride batteries
2) C. Lead acid and Nickel-metal hydride batteries
3) A. Alkaline and Lithium batteries
4) B. Lead acid and Alkaline batteries

81. 81. What are Indicating and Metering Instruments used for in substations?

1) D. Measuring atmospheric pressure
2) C. Monitoring current and power loads
3) A. Making coffee for substation workers
4) B. Controlling transformers

82. 82. How is a Circuit Breaker characterized in its ability to handle current flow under normal and fault conditions?

1) C. Power factor correction device
2) D. Instrument transformer
3) B. Voltage transformer
4) A. Mechanical isolating device

83. 83. What is the purpose of a Lightning Arrestor in a substation?

1) D. Operating circuit breakers
2) A. Diverting surges to the ground and protecting equipment
3) C. Regulating voltage levels
4) B. Generating electrical surges

84. 84. What do High-Voltage Fuses primarily protect in substations?

1) A. Batteries
2) B. Insulators
3) C. Power transformers
4) D. Bus-Bars

85. 85. What is the role of a Relay in a power system?

1) D. Isolating power transformers
2) C. Providing emergency lighting
3) A. Producing electrical surges
4) B. Protecting equipment against abnormal conditions like faults

86. 86. What is the purpose of the "point check" in the installation of power transformers?

1) D. To carry out the stabilizing process
2) C. To check the equipment type, size, and other information
3) A. To verify the working performance
4) B. To transfer the transformer to the construction site

87. 87. What is the secondary handling of the transformer?

1) B. Stabilizing the transformer
2) C. Transferring the transformer from the depot to the construction site
3) D. Filling the transformer with oil
4) A. Fixing the main parts to the construction site

88. 88. When is the installation of transformer accessories carried out?

1) C. During the secondary handling
2) D. During the point check
3) B. After stabilizing the transformer
4) A. Before stabilizing the transformer

89. 89. What is the purpose of fuse disconnectors with a voltage above 1 kV in distribution networks?

1) D. To improve internet connectivity
2) C. To regulate electrical consumption
3) A. To enhance communication systems
4) B. To protect loads from voltage surges, overloads, and short circuits

90. 90. What is the role of the fusible insert in a fuse disconnector?

1) B. Electrical insulation
2) C. Carrying the rated current and interrupting the circuit in case of overload
3) D. Quenching arcs during fuse operation
4) A. Mechanical support

91. 91. How is circuit interruption achieved in a fuse disconnector?

1) D. By using arc-quenching material
2) C. By increasing the rated breaking capacity
3) B. By melting the fusible insert
4) A. By tightening contact pressure

92. 92. What is the purpose of the cartridge in a fuse disconnector?

1) D. To prevent voltage surges
2) C. To provide mechanical support and electrical insulation
3) B. To interrupt the electrical circuit
4) A. To carry the rated current

93. 93. What is the role of arc-quenching material in a fuse disconnector?

1) C. To prevent sustained arcing and protect equipment
2) D. To provide mechanical support
3) B. To interrupt the electrical circuit
4) A. To carry the rated current

94. 94. Where is the trip indicator typically mounted on a fuse disconnector?

1) D. Near the contacts
2) C. On the top cover of the fuse tube
3) B. On the fusible insert
4) A. Inside the cartridge

95. 95. What is the purpose of testing high-voltage fuses?

1) D. To reduce the resistance of the fusible insert
2) C. To assess the condition of the devices and ensure compliance with specifications
3) A. To increase the rated breaking capacity
4) B. To improve fire safety

96. 96. What equipment is used for testing high-voltage fuses to assess their condition?

1) D. Infrared cameras
2) A. Oscilloscopes
3) B. Megohmmeters and resistance meters
4) C. Power drills

97. 97. What determines the operability of switching devices in high-voltage fuses?

1) C. The material of the fusible insert
2) D. The size of the arc-quenching material
3) A. The color of the fuse tube
4) B. Nominal voltages and tripping currents

98. 98. Which equipment is used for electrical tests on high-voltage fuses?

1) C. E6-32
2) D. Both A and B
3) B. IFN-200
4) A. ETL-35K

99. 99. In what sequence are measurements carried out during electrical tests on high-voltage fuses?

1) D. Visual inspection, high-voltage testing, resistance measurement
2) C. Resistance testing, visual inspection, contact pressure verification
3) B. Nominal voltage measurement, resistance testing, tripping current assessment
4) A. Visual inspection, contact pressure verification, arc-quenching medium check

100. 100. What is the primary parameter determining the ability to disconnect the circuit in high-voltage fuses?

1) B. Rated breaking capacity
2) C. Nominal voltage
3) D. Contact pressure
4) A. Resistance of the fusible insert

101. 101. What is the purpose of the mobile laboratory ETL-35K in testing high-voltage fuses?

1) D. To check the integrity of the insert
2) C. To supply high voltage for testing
3) A. To measure contact pressure
4) B. To assess the operability of the fuse disconnector

102. 102. How is the integrity of the insert checked during electrical tests?

1) C. By checking the arc-quenching medium
2) D. By using a megohmmeter
3) B. By visual inspection
4) A. By measuring the resistance

103. 103. What does the trip indicator on a fuse disconnector signify?

1) C. The presence of sustained arcing
2) D. The necessity of contact pressure verification
3) A. The need for visual inspection
4) B. The operability of the fuse

104. 104. What is the primary purpose of circuit breakers in electrical distribution networks?

1) D. To improve fire safety
2) A. To increase current flow
3) B. To protect against voltage surges
4) C. To regulate electrical consumption

105. 105. What components in a circuit breaker provide protective functions and open the contacts when the current exceeds the nominal value?

1) D. Arc-quenching material
2) A. Cartridges
3) B. Releases
4) C. Fusible inserts

106. 106. What two types of releases are mentioned as providing protective functions in circuit breakers?

1) D. Mechanical and thermal
2) C. Fusible and semiconductor
3) B. Electromagnetic and arc-quenching
4) A. Thermal and magnetic

107. 107. What is the measured parameter during the testing of circuit breakers' operation?

1) B. Tripping time
2) C. Current flow
3) D. Resistance value
4) A. Voltage magnitude

108. 108. Why is it necessary to test circuit breakers after short-circuit events?

1) D. To identify counterfeit products
2) C. To ensure the safety of personnel and equipment
3) B. To assess the wear on the circuit breaker
4) A. To check the plastic quality

109. 109. What conditions indicate a successful test of a circuit breaker after a short-circuit event?

1) D. Leakage of insulating compound, weakened connections, and rough plastic
2) C. Smooth plastic, easily scratched barcode, and damaged casing
3) B. No critical wear, unchanged position of contacts, and intact casing
4) A. Critical wear, changed position of contacts, and damaged casing

110. 110. How can one identify a counterfeit ABB circuit breaker according to the provided information?

1) D. Regular ink barcode and rough plastic
2) C. Matte plastic and glossy casing
3) B. Smooth plastic and intact casing
4) A. Laser-printed barcode and rough plastic

111. 111. What is the purpose of testing circuit breakers with voltages up to 1000 V?

1) D. To check the plastic quality
2) A. To improve fire safety
3) B. To assess wear on the circuit breaker
4) C. To measure insulation resistance and ensure safety

112. 112. What is the acceptable tripping time for distribution circuits and circuits supplying mobile electrical equipment, given a certain resistance condition?

1) D. Up to 10 seconds
2) A. Up to 1 second
3) B. Up to 0.4 seconds
4) C. Up to 5 seconds

113. 113. When testing circuit breakers, what should be the insulation resistance between the apparatus's pole and ground?

1) C. At least 1 MOhm
2) D. At least 0.5 MOhm
3) B. Less than 0.5 MOhm
4) A. Less than 1 MOhm

114. 114. What is the permissible insulation resistance value during high voltage testing at 1000 V for 1 minute?

1) D. 1 MOhm for each phase
2) C. 2500 V
3) B. 1 MOhm
4) A. 500 V

115. 115. How are semiconductor trip units typically subjected to testing regarding the protection block current?

1) D. Tenfold
2) C. Sixfold
3) B. Fourfold
4) A. Onefold

116. 116. What is the purpose of testing the operation of circuit breakers at nominal and reduced voltage?

1) D. To ensure correct and safe operation
2) C. To assess wear on the circuit breaker
3) B. To ensure proper installation
4) A. To identify counterfeit products

117. 117. How often should the measurement of insulation resistance be performed, and what is the minimum value specified?

1) C. Once every 6 months, 0.5 Mohm
2) D. Once every 6 years, 0.5 MOhm
3) B. Once every 6 years, 1 MOhm
4) A. Once every 6 months, 1 MOhm

118. 118. What precautions should be taken when connecting the input terminals of the devices being tested to the current-carrying circuit?

1) D. Disassemble the circuit breaker for better access
2) B. Ensure the presence of voltage
3) C. Use insulating overshoes, gloves, and insulated tools
4) A. None, as it is safe

119. 119. How is the insulation resistance of moving and guiding parts made of organic materials measured in oil switches with voltage up to 10 kV?

1) D. By measuring DC resistance with a DC bridge
2) C. Through the ammeter-voltmeter method
3) B. With a 2500 V megaohmmeter
4) A. Using a high-voltage test transformer

120. 120. What devices are used to measure the DC resistance of switch poles in oil switches with an accuracy of 0.001 ohms?

1) C. Ammeter-voltmeter method
2) D. DC bridges P333
3) A. Megaohmmeters
4) B. Micro-meters of the F4104-M1 type

121. 121. How is the high-voltage insulation testing carried out during major repairs of oil switches?

1) D. Disconnecting the test unit after maintaining the voltage for 1 minute
2) C. Gradually raising the voltage to the required level
3) A. By measuring the resistance of main contacts
4) B. Using a 2500 V megaohmmeter

122. 122. When is the insulation resistance measured on oil switches with pull-out elements (switch trolleys)?

1) B. On a disconnected switch during breaking
2) C. On a fully withdrawn switch with disconnected secondary circuits
3) D. During major repairs of switches
4) A. On a completely deflated and disconnected switch

123. 123. How is the resistance measurement of the full pole of the pull-out element performed?

1) C. With a 2500 V megaohmmeter
2) D. Gradually raising the voltage to the required level
3) A. Using microohmmeters or DC bridges
4) B. Through the ammeter-voltmeter method

124. 124. What is the test voltage for secondary circuits and control electromagnets during insulation testing, provided these devices are designed for at least 60V?

1) C. 1 kV
2) D. 60 V
3) A. 2500 V
4) B. 10 kV

125. 125. How is the condition of the contact system of the switch evaluated during testing?

1) D. By measuring the resistance of main contacts
2) A. By measuring insulation resistance
3) B. By comparing measured resistance with normalized values
4) C. Using microohmmeters

126. 126. What is the purpose of gradually raising the voltage during high-voltage insulation testing of oil switches?

1) D. To use DC bridges
2) B. To decrease the voltage after maintaining for 1 minute
3) C. To perform the ammeter-voltmeter method
4) A. To ensure reliable contact with the measured circuit

127. 127. How often should the insulation resistance measurement be performed on oil switches 6-10 kV during repair work in the cells?

1) C. Once every month
2) D. Once every 2 years
3) B. Once every 6 years
4) A. Once every 6 months

128. 128. What is used to measure the insulation resistance of secondary circuits and control electromagnets when these devices are disconnected?

1) C. DC bridges P333
2) D. Megaohmmeters at 2500 V
3) B. Microohmmeters
4) A. High-voltage test transformers

129. 129. What is the initial step in testing power transformers, and what components are inspected externally?

1) D. Checking dielectric losses; moisture content
2) C. Phasing of the transformer; voltage measurements
3) B. External inspection; seals, oil quantity, grounding, etc.
4) A. Measuring insulation resistance; windings and oil

130. 130. Why is it essential to dry or heat a transformer exposed to moisture before energizing?

1) D. To measure dielectric losses
2) C. To decrease capacitance
3) A. To reduce the oil quantity
4) B. To meet insulation standards

131. 131. When should the insulation characteristics of dry transformers be measured after oil filling?

1) D. During the oil sampling process
2) C. When the temperature is below 10°C
3) B. At least 12 hours after oil filling
4) A. Immediately after oil filling

132. 132. What is the operating voltage of the megohmmeter used to measure the insulation resistance of transformer windings?

1) D. 5000 V
2) B. 220 V
3) C. 2500 V
4) A. 10 V

133. 133. How is the tangent of the angle of dielectric losses measured for oil-filled transformers?

1) D. Using an alternating current bridge
2) C. At 220 V
3) B. At a voltage exceeding 2/3 of the specified test voltage
4) A. At the manufacturer's specified test voltage

134. 134. Why are capacitance measurements performed at frequencies of 2 Hz and 50 Hz during electrical testing?

1) D. To check the correctness of phasing
2) B. To determine the moisture content
3) C. To measure dielectric losses
4) A. To check winding connections

135. 135. How is the correctness of winding connections in a transformer determined?

1) C. Measuring capacitance
2) D. Determining the transformation ratio with two voltmeters
3) B. Phasing with signal lamps
4) A. Using a wattmeter

136. 136. What do current and no-load losses characterize in a transformer?

1) D. Dielectric losses
2) C. Moisture content
3) B. Hysteresis and eddy current losses
4) A. Insulation resistance

137. 137. How is the phasing of a transformer performed, and what is the verification method?

1) D. Applying a high voltage test; recording in the protocol
2) C. Phasemeter or direct current method; voltmeter or indicators
3) B. Measuring capacitance; special indicators
4) A. Using a voltmeter; checking dielectric losses

138. 138. What is the final step after completing the testing of a power transformer, and when is the transformer put into operation?

1) D. Conducting a high voltage test on the oil; ensuring correct phasing
2) C. Checking winding connections; measuring capacitance
3) B. Recording data in the protocol; conforming to standards
4) A. Measuring the tangent of the angle of losses

139. 139. What information is crucial to include on the Low Voltage Circuit Breaker Data Sheet?

1) D. Electrically operated breaker specifications
2) C. Job number, nameplate data, and test results
3) A. Megger insulation test results
4) B. Weather conditions during testing

140. 140. What is the satisfactory test result for the Megger insulation test on a rebuilt 480V circuit breaker?

1) D. 480 mega ohms
2) C. 200 mega ohms
3) A. 50 mega ohms
4) B. 100 mega ohms or higher

141. 141. Why is the Contact Resistance Test (Ductor Test) performed on low voltage circuit breakers?

1) D. To check under voltage devices
2) C. To ensure solid and equal contact surfaces
3) B. To verify the operation of the Y relay
4) A. To test the blown fuse device

142. 142. How should electrically operated circuit breakers be tested, specifically regarding the charging motor and tripping mechanism?

1) D. By tripping the circuit breaker from the primary disconnects
2) B. By closing the circuit breaker from the primary disconnects
3) C. By applying voltage at the secondary disconnects
4) A. By applying voltage at the primary disconnects

143. 143. What is the purpose of high current injection testing on circuit breakers?

1) C. To test the blown fuse device
2) D. To check the reliability of the trip units
3) A. To verify operation of the Y relay
4) B. To ensure solid and equal contact surfaces

144. 144. What percentage of the breaker's normal load rating is typically used for testing a circuit breaker's long-time function during high current injection testing?

1) D. 300%
2) B. 100%
3) C. 150%
4) A. 50%

145. 145. What information should be recorded on the Low Voltage Circuit Breaker Data Sheet during high current injection testing?

1) D. Contact resistance test results for each phase
2) A. Weather conditions during testing
3) C. Electrically operated breaker specifications
4) B. Manufacturer's curves for the specific circuit breaker

146. 146. What is the first step in the installation of power transformers, and who participates in the point check of the equipment?

1) D. Installing transformer accessories
2) A. Stabilizing the transformer
3) B. Secondary handling
4) C. Joint check by installation, supply, and construction companies

147. 147. What does the secondary handling of the transformer involve, and what tools are necessary for this step?

1) D. Testing the working performance of the transformer; oil filter
2) C. Transfer from the depot to the construction site; specialized handling tools
3) B. Fixing main parts to the construction site; construction drawings
4) A. Filling the transformer with oil; specialized handling tools

148. 148. When is the stabilizing step of the transformer carried out, and what does it involve?

1) D. After installing accessories; completing overall assembly
2) A. Before the point check; checking equipment type and size
3) B. After secondary handling; fixing main parts to the construction site
4) C. Before secondary handling; transferring the transformer from the depot

149. 149. What are the last three steps of transformer installation mainly focused on, and what do they aim to achieve?

1) D. Stabilizing; transferring to the construction site; completing overall assembly
2) A. Secondary handling; stabilizing; filling with oil
3) B. Installing accessories; filtering transformer oil; ensuring normal operation
4) C. Test steps; checking working performance; guaranteeing normal operation

150. 150. Why is filtering transformer oil important, and what issues can arise if it is not done correctly?

1) B. To ensure the quality of the installation; avoiding personal injuries
2) C. To guarantee normal operation; preventing impurities and density errors
3) D. To avoid fires during installation; ensuring a closed space for filtering
4) A. To prevent debris from falling into the tank; impact on the power transformer system

151. 151. What is the primary concern during the installation of power transformers, and what precautionary measures should be taken?

1) D. Ensuring the correct density of oil; monitoring installation site in real-time
2) B. Personal injuries; assign additional personnel for supervision
3) C. Filtering transformer oil; using a specific oil filter
4) A. Falling debris; use of advanced air filters

152. 152. Why is fire prevention crucial during the installation of power transformers, and what precautionary measures are recommended?

1) D. To avoid impurities in the oil; use of advanced air filters
2) C. To ensure the correct density of oil; deployment of oil proportioning
3) B. To avoid fires due to flammable liquids; preparation of fire extinguishing equipment
4) A. To prevent personal injuries; use of specialized handling tools

153. 153. What can happen if debris falls into the tank during the installation of power transformers, and how is this issue addressed in the market?

1) C. Paralysis of the transformer; preparation of fire extinguishing equipment
2) D. Threat to staff's life; assignment of additional personnel for supervision
3) B. Contamination of the oil; real-time monitoring at the installation site
4) A. Impact on the power transformer system; use of advanced air filters

154. 154. What is one potential cause of personal injuries during the installation of power transformers, and how can it be prevented?

1) D. Filtering transformer oil; assignment of additional personnel for supervision
2) A. Leakage of electricity; use of advanced air filters
3) B. Falling debris; preparation of fire extinguishing equipment
4) C. Fires due to flammable liquids; real-time monitoring at the installation site

155. 155. What is the role of additional personnel during the installation of power transformers, and why are they assigned to the site?

1) D. To filter transformer oil; use specialized handling tools
2) C. To test the working performance; check for impurities in the oil
3) B. To supervise the site; react immediately to incidents and guarantee normal installation
4) A. To complete overall assembly; ensure normal operation

156. 156. What is emphasized as a key element in maintaining the efficiency and prolonging the lifetime of electric motors?

1) A. Major repairs
2) B. Predictive maintenance
3) C. Minor checks and maintenance
4) D. Reactive maintenance

157. 157. Which type of electric motor is mentioned as the most commonly used in the article, and what contributes to its lower maintenance requirements?

1) A. Synchronous motors; advanced features
2) B. DC motors; simplicity
3) C. Stepper motors; precision
4) D. Induction motors; simple and rugged construction

158. 158. Why are induction motors considered almost maintenance-free, and what can be traced back as the cause of most induction motor failures?

1) C. They undergo major repairs regularly; voltage variations
2) D. They can be eliminated by simple and minor checks; bad ventilation, loosened terminals, and over-temperature
3) A. They require frequent checks; misalignment issues
4) B. They have complex constructions; lack of lubricants

159. 159. What are some reasons mentioned in the article that can lead to motor failure if not addressed through regular checks?

1) B. Loosened terminals and preventive maintenance
2) C. Bad ventilation, over-temperature, and misalignment
3) D. Sufficient cooling and predictive maintenance
4) A. Predictive maintenance and over-temperature

160. 160. Why is reactive maintenance considered the most costly, and what does it involve?

1) D. It involves major repairs; repairs done after facing a failure
2) B. It aims to keep the motor running at the highest efficiency; minor maintenance
3) C. It involves predictive maintenance; repairs done before facing a failure
4) A. It prevents failures; repairs done after facing a failure

161. 161. What is the importance of motor cooling, and what problems can high temperatures cause for electric motors?

1) D. It leads to noise analysis problems; motor windings failure
2) C. It increases motor efficiency; bad ventilation
3) B. It ensures sufficient cooling; bearing or windings failure
4) A. It prevents misalignment; over-temperature

162. 162. What is the significance of maintaining the cleanliness of motor ventilation paths, and how can it vary based on the environment?

1) D. It ensures bad ventilation; importance varies with dust concentration
2) C. It reduces humidity; less cleaning in clean areas
3) A. It avoids misalignment; constant cleaning is required
4) B. It prevents noise analysis problems; frequent cleaning in dusty areas

163. 163. What are some minor troubles highlighted in the article that can be fatal to electric motors if not handled properly?

1) C. Voltage variations and under-voltages
2) D. Motor cooling, cleanliness of ventilation paths, and loosened terminals
3) A. Noise analysis problems and overvoltage issues
4) B. Predictive maintenance and misalignment

164. 164. What are the environmental factors mentioned in the article that can influence the importance of checking and cleaning ventilation paths?

1) A. Noise analysis and misalignment
2) B. Dust concentration and debris
3) C. Voltage variations and humidity
4) D. Over-temperature and preventive maintenance

165. 165. What is a potential consequence of water particles condensing around a motor?

1) C. Loosened terminals
2) D. Increased motor efficiency
3) A. Overheating
4) B. Vibration issues

166. 166. Which component should be regularly checked to prevent water from entering the motor?

1) D. Power contactor terminals
2) C. Bearings
3) A. Cooling fan
4) B. Ventilation paths

167. 167. What is a common outcome of misalignment between the motor and the driven system?

1) D. Better lubrication
2) A. Increased motor efficiency
3) B. Improved coupling elements
4) C. Vibration issues

168. 168. What can improper mounting of a motor lead to?

1) D. Reduced vibration
2) C. Improved coupling
3) B. Misalignment
4) A. Increased motor efficiency

169. 169. Why is checking and maintaining bearings crucial for motor health?

1) C. To prevent vibration issues
2) D. To avoid bearing and motor failures
3) B. To reduce noise levels
4) A. To increase motor efficiency

170. 170. How can single phasing impact a motor?

1) D. Leads to motor burnout
2) C. Improves motor longevity
3) B. Causes protection system activation
4) A. Enhances motor performance

171. 171. What is the impact of over and under voltages on a motor's lifetime?

1) A. Increases motor efficiency
2) B. Reduces motor temperature
3) D. Enhances motor performance
4) C. Decreases motor longevity

172. 172. Which of the following is a recommended preventive check for motor maintenance?

1) D. Temperature analysis
2) A. Noise analysis
3) B. Vibration analysis
4) C. Cleaning motor from dust

173. 173. Why should the alignment of the motor be regularly checked?

1) D. To improve bearing performance
2) C. To enhance coupling elements
3) B. To avoid misalignment issues
4) A. To reduce motor temperature

174. 174. What analysis can help identify potential motor issues through sound patterns?

1) D. Performance analysis
2) C. Temperature analysis
3) B. Noise analysis
4) A. Vibration analysis

175. 175. What is the main purpose of the AR (Automatic Re-closing) in an electrical system?

1) D. To delay power supply intentionally
2) B. To restore the operation of the system after a shutdown
3) C. To prevent any electrical malfunctions
4) A. To permanently shut down the system

176. 176. What is a prerequisite for the existence of the APV (Automatic Re-closing)?

1) D. Specific activation conditions
2) C. Regular activation intervals
3) B. Absence of a ban on the second activation
4) A. Permanent ban on reactivation

177. 177. What are the main types of malfunctions that may cause a shutdown of the electrical system?

1) D. Excessive power consumption
2) C. Voltage spikes
3) A. Software glitches
4) B. Short circuits, wire collisions, icing of wires

178. 178. What is the typical time delay for the operation of the AR?

1) A. Several minutes
2) B. Instantaneous
3) C. 1-2 seconds
4) D. 0.2 – 0.5 to several seconds

179. 179. How does the response time of the AR vary with voltage?

1) D. Response time is constant for all voltages
2) C. Voltage has no effect on response time
3) B. Higher voltage, shorter time delay
4) A. Higher voltage, longer time delay

180. 180. What factor influences the duration of the AR device's operation?

1) D. Temperature
2) C. Frequency of malfunctions
3) B. Cross-section and material of wires
4) A. Voltage

181. 181. What distinguishes single-phase AR from three-phase AR?

1) A. Voltage level
2) B. Time delay
3) C. Number of phases involved
4) D. Type of malfunction

182. 182. How are three-phase ARs further classified based on power supply?

1) D. Synchronous and non-synchronous
2) C. Low-speed and high-speed
3) B. With one-way and two-way power supply
4) A. Single-phase and three-phase

183. 183. What is the characteristic of two-way AR with synchronism detection?

1) D. Reactivates only one high-voltage switch
2) B. Supplies power first from one side, then from the other
3) C. Delays power supply intentionally
4) A. Simultaneous input of switches on both sides

184. 184. What is the purpose of high-speed AR?

1) D. To prevent short circuits in the electrical network
2) C. To re-enable the system in the shortest possible period
3) B. To detect synchronism in the system
4) A. To cause intentional delays in reactivation

185. 185. What is the key consideration for the performance of Automatic Re-closing (AR)?

1) D. Planned work schedule
2) C. Category of the consumer
3) A. Voltage levels
4) B. Transition speed and dissipation of electric arc

186. 186. What is emphasized regarding the resistance to emergency mode for Three-phase AR and backup protection devices?

1) D. Delayed response time
2) C. Maintaining protection actions
3) B. Independence from electrical values
4) A. Rapid reduction in electrical values

187. 187. Why is selectivity of the AR important in an emergency automation system?

1) D. To increase the speed of response
2) C. To coordinate with other emergency automation devices
3) A. To maximize operational shutdowns
4) B. To minimize planned work interruptions

188. 188. What precaution is advised when conducting planned work after operational shutdowns?

1) D. Allow uncontrolled multiple AR for efficient operation
2) C. Remove AR from the circuit to prevent inadvertent voltage supply
3) B. Disconnect other protections to avoid interference
4) A. Maintain AR in the circuit for continuous protection

189. 189. What action is expected in case of an unsuccessful AR?

1) D. Unblock multiple AR for better protection
2) A. Maintain the switching device in the on position
3) B. Automatic return to the on position
4) C. Keep the disconnected position for safety

190. 190. What is the primary function of a disconnector in an electrical system?

1) D. Power disconnection for safety
2) B. Voltage stabilization
3) C. Power supply initiation
4) A. Current regulation

191. 191. How is a disconnector different from a circuit breaker?

1) D. Circuit breakers are mainly for under-voltage conditions.
2) C. Disconnectors are for load current operations only.
3) B. Circuit breakers are used for visible gap creation.
4) A. Disconnectors have arc extinguishing devices.

192. 192. What is the purpose of disconnectors in outdoor installations during icy conditions?

1) D. To regulate magnetizing currents
2) B. To destroy the ice crust
3) C. To extinguish load currents
4) A. To create a visible gap

193. 193. What distinguishes three-pole disconnectors from single-pole disconnectors?

1) B. Lever drive control
2) C. Nature of movement
3) D. Equipped with horns
4) A. Operational isolation rod

194. 194. Why are insulation partitions installed between the poles of disconnectors?

1) D. To facilitate outdoor installation
2) A. To decrease the on and off current
3) C. To increase the on and off current
4) B. To stabilize voltage changes

195. 195. What is the function of horns on the contacts of outdoor disconnectors?

1) D. To destroy the ice crust formed during ice
2) C. To increase the on and off current
3) B. To facilitate turning off equalizing currents
4) A. To create a visible gap

196. 196. What kind of currents are allowed for disconnectors of 6-10 kV in closed switchgears?

1) D. Over-voltage currents
2) B. Ground fault currents only
3) C. Charging currents and magnetizing currents
4) A. High load currents

197. 197. How does the installation of insulation partitions impact on and off currents for disconnectors of 6-10 kV?

1) D. It decreases on current and increases off current.
2) B. It increases both on and off currents.
3) C. It has no impact on currents.
4) A. It decreases both on and off currents.

198. 198. What types of currents have disconnectors of 6-10 kV been confirmed to handle?

1) D. Ground fault currents only
2) C. Charging currents and equalizing currents
3) B. Magnetization currents only
4) A. Only load currents

199. 199. What is the significance of turning on and off equalizing currents with disconnectors of 6-10 kV?

1) D. To manage load redistribution during disconnecting or switching on electrical communication
2) C. To facilitate ground fault currents
3) A. To initiate power supply
4) B. To regulate magnetizing currents

200. 200. What is the primary function of a separator in a high-voltage circuit?

1) B. To extinguish electric arcs
2) C. To disconnect damaged sections automatically
3) D. To regulate voltage transformers
4) A. To create artificial short circuits